I'm not going to take the time to go into the long winded arguments for and against gay marriage. My question is: why was this left up to a vote? I don't believe such laws should be a matter of public opinion - rather a judicial and executive interpretation of constitutional laws.
1870: If the question of giving blacks the right to vote had been put to a popular vote, do you think the 15th amendment would exist?
1920: Would a popular vote have given women the right to vote? Or perhaps the same fearful homophobics who waste all their time and energy opposing gay marriage also believe women should be their property?
The civil rights movement, the end of women's suffrage - all of the socially progressive changes that were based on the mistreatment and denial of rights to PEOPLE - happened because of social activism led by a minority group - not a majority popular vote.
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